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Question 1:

Which of the following methods frequently delivers new code in an automatic way for development projects?

A. Automated testing

B. CI/CD process

C. Validation checks

D. Deploy sprint

Correct Answer: B

Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) is a method used in software development that frequently and automatically delivers new code. This process allows for quick iterations and continuous delivery of new features or improvements, making it highly valuable in agile development projects.

Question 2:

Halfway through a project, the sponsor states that the project is taking too long to complete. Which of the following should the project manager consult?

A. Gantt chart

B. Maintenance window schedule

C. Functional requirements

D. Test results

Correct Answer: A

Gantt chart is like a big calendar for your project. Imagine you have a school project that has different parts – like research, writing, and creating a presentation. A Gantt chart helps you plan out when you should start and finish each part.

Question 3:

A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use?

A. Synchronous

B. Informal

C. Asynchronous

D. Formal

Correct Answer: A

In project management, synchronous contact style refers to a communication style where communication between team members or stakeholders happens in real-time. It involves direct, immediate communication through channels such as face-to-face meetings, phone calls, video conferences, or instant messaging.

Synchronous contact style is useful when team members need to collaborate closely, exchange information quickly, or make decisions rapidly. It is particularly effective for solving urgent or complex problems, discussing critical issues, or resolving conflicts.

Question 4:

A project sponsor is notified that the committed turnaround time has been exceeded. The team member assigned to this item stated that the support of the management team was requested on time. Which of the following documents should be reviewed to understand the root cause of this situation?

A. RACI

B. SOW

C. Escalation path

D. Communication plan

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

A project manager realizes that a project will not be completed on time due to resource constraints. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?

A. Trigger the contingency plan and communicate with the stakeholders.

B. Work with the functional managers to create a work-around.

C. Submit a change request to the change control board.

D. Transfer the risk by hiring a new vendor who was successful on a previous project.

E. Set up an escalation meeting with the sponsor.

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

During the course of a project, an unexpected event occurs that could ultimately benefit the company. Which of the following is the company employing if the company decides to take advantage of this opportunity?

A. Exploit

B. Enhance

C. Accept

D. Mitigate

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A project manager has been informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed. Which of the following is the FIRST step the project manager should take?

A. Make an impact assessment.

B. Prepare a new purchase order.

C. Select a new vendor.

D. Create a risk register.

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

An IT intern was assigned to set up workstations as part of a project. The IT intern was very careful to do the task well and initially referred to notes while performing the task. By the end of the two-week rotation, the IT intern no longer needed the notes and completed more set-ups in less time.

Which of the following MOST likely represents the observed relationship in this scenario?

A.

B.

C.

D.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.)

A. managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.

B. contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.

C. setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.

D. outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects.

E. approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 85

Question 10:

A project manager was not part of a contract negotiation. The project manager is concerned that stakeholders will expect the project to achieve deliverables requested in the RFP. Which of the following documents should the project manager produce FIRST to start communication about the boundaries of the project?

A. Milestone chart

B. Work breakdown structure

C. Project charter

D. Detailed scope statement

Correct Answer: C

The project charter should be produced first. The project charter is a high-level document that describes the project, its goals, and its stakeholders. It is used to get the project started and to obtain approval from senior management. The detailed scope statement is a more detailed document that describes the project\’s deliverables, scope, and schedule. It is used to communicate the project to stakeholders and to ensure that everyone is on the same page.

Question 11:

While managing a project, a PM is assigned to work on a second project. The second project becomes more complex and monopolizes the PM\’s time. The PM learns that a similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization. Which of the following actions should the PM take?

A. Perform a root cause analysis.

B. Organize a stakeholder meeting.

C. Escalate the issue to the CCB.

D. Contact the PMO for assistance.

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which of the following is a quality assurance tool?

A. Defining project goals

B. Identifying the root cause analysis

C. Assessing employee efficiency

D. Assessing skill gaps

Correct Answer: B

Identifying the root cause analysis is a quality assurance tool. Root cause analysis is a method used to identify the underlying cause of a problem or issue. It is often used in quality assurance to determine the root cause of defects or failures in a process, and to develop corrective actions to prevent the issue from recurring.

Question 13:

A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete. The output of this exercise will produce the:

A. ROI.

B. SOW.

C. RFI.

D. RFP.

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

A project plan included budgeted funding to set up only a specified number of workstations. A department manager asked a project manager to set up additional workstations just in case the workstations are needed in the future. Which of the following should the project manager do?

A. Ask the sponsor for additional funding to accommodate the request.

B. Escalate the request to the senior management team.

C. Advise that a change request would need to be approved.

D. Instruct the project team to set up the additional workstations.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

The project sponsor has cut the resources required for project completion. The project manager cannot complete the project without additional resources. Which of the following should the project manager do to obtain the resources?

A. The project manager should identify and document the reasons for the additional resources in a change request.

B. The project manager should hire additional resources temporarily to complete the project.

C. The project manager should terminate the project until additional resources are added to the project.

D. The project manager should ask the project team members to take on more tasks to complete the project on time.

Correct Answer: A