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Question 1:

. To properly evaluate the collective effect of preventative, detective, or corrective controls within a process, an IS auditor should be aware of which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.

A. The business objectives of the organization

B. The effect of segregation of duties on internal controls

C. The point at which controls are exercised as data flows through the system

D. Organizational control policies

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

When evaluating the collective effect of preventive, detective, or corrective controls within a process, an IS auditor should be aware of the point at which controls are exercised as data flows through the system.


Question 2:

. Which of the following processes are performed during the design phase of the systemsdevelopment life cycle (SDLC) model?

A. Develop test plans.

B. Baseline procedures to prevent scope creep.

C. Define the need that requires resolution, and map to the major requirements of the solution.

D. Program and test the new system. The tests verify and validate what has been developed.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Procedures to prevent scope creep are baselined in the design phase of the systems-development life cycle (SDLC) model.


Question 3:

Which of the following is a benefit of a risk-based approach to audit planning? Audit:

A. scheduling may be performed months in advance.

B. budgets are more likely to be met by the IS audit staff.

C. staff will be exposed to a variety of technologies.

D. resources are allocated to the areas of highest concern

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: The risk-based approach is designed to ensure audit time is spent on the areas of highest risk. The development of an audit schedule is not addressed by a risk-based approach. Audit schedules may be prepared months in advance using various schedulingmethods. A risk approach does not have a direct correlation to the audit staff meeting time budgets on a particular audit, nor does it necessarily mean a wider variety of audits will be performed in a given year.


Question 4:

During an exit interview, in cases where there is disagreement regarding the impact of a finding, an IS auditor should:

A. ask the auditee to sign a release form accepting full legal responsibility.

B. elaborate on the significance of the finding and the risks of not correcting it.

C. report the disagreement to the audit committee for resolution.

D. accept the auditee\’s position since they are the process owners.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation: If the auditee disagrees with the impact of a finding, it is important for an IS auditor to elaborate and clarify the risks and exposures, as the auditee may not fully appreciate the magnitude of the exposure. The goal should be to enlighten the auditee or uncover new information of which an IS auditor may not have been aware. Anything that appears to threaten the auditee will lessen effective communications and set up an adversarial relationship. By the same token, an IS auditor should not automatically agree just because the auditee expresses an alternate point of view.


Question 5:

An IT steering committee should review information systems PRIMARILY to assess:

A. whether IT processes support business requirements.

B. if proposed system functionality is adequate.

C. the stability of existing software.

D. the complexity of installed technology.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: The role of an IT steering committee is to ensure that the IS department is in harmony with the organization\’s mission and objectives. To ensure this, the committee must determine whether IS processes support the business requirements. Assessing proposed additional functionality and evaluating software stability and the complexity of technology are too narrow in scope to ensure that IT processes are, in fact, supporting the organization\’s goals.


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Question 6:

To minimize costs and improve service levels an outsourcer should seek which of the following contract clauses?

A. O/S and hardware refresh frequencies

B. Gain-sharing performance bonuses

C. Penalties for noncompliance

D. Charges tied to variable cost metrics

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation: Because the outsourcer will share a percentage of the achieved savings, gain-sharing performance bonuses provide a financial incentive to go above and beyond the stated terms of the contract and can lead to cost savings for the client. Refresh frequencies and penalties for noncompliance would only encourage the outsourcer to meet minimum requirements. Similarly, tying charges to variable cost metrics would not encourage the outsourcer to seek additional efficiencies that might benefit the client.


Question 7:

Which of the following will BEST ensure the successful offshore development of business applications?

A. Stringent contract management practices

B. Detailed and correctly applied specifications

C. Awareness of cultural and political differences

D. Postimplementation reviews

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

When dealing with offshore operations, it is essential that detailed specifications be created. Language differences and a lack of interaction between developers and physically remote end users could create gaps in communication in which assumptionsand modifications may not be adequately communicated. Contract management practices, cultural and political differences, and postimplementation reviews, although important, are not as pivotal to the success of the project.


Question 8:

The MOST significant security concern when using flash memory (e.g., USB removable disk) is that the:

A. contents are highly volatile.

B. data cannot be backed up.

C. data can be copied.

D. device may not be compatible with other peripherals.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Unless properly controlled, flash memory provides an avenue for anyone to copy any content with ease. The contents stored in flash memory are not volatile. Backing up flash memory data is not a control concern, as the data are sometimes stored as a backup. Flash memory will be accessed through a PC rather than any other peripheral; therefore, compatibility is not an issue.


Question 9:

The PRIMARY objective of performing a postincident review is that it presents an opportunity to:

A. improve internal control procedures.

B. harden the network to industry best practices.

C. highlight the importance of incident response management to management.

D. improve employee awareness of the incident response process.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

A postincident review examines both the cause and response to an incident. The lessons learned from the review can be used to improve internal controls. Understanding the

purpose and structure of postincident reviews and follow-up procedures enablesthe

information security manager to continuously improve the security program. Improving the incident response plan based on the incident review is an internal (corrective) control. The network may already be hardened to industry best practices. Additionally, the network may not be the source of the incident. The primary objective is to improve internal control procedures, not to highlight the importance of incident response management (IRM), and an incident response (IR) review does not improveemployee awareness.


Question 10:

Which of the following should concern an IS auditor when reviewing security in a client-server environment?

A. Protecting data using an encryption technique

B. Preventing unauthorized access using a diskless workstation

C. The ability of users to access and modify the database directly

D. Disabling floppy drives on the users\’ machines

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

For the purpose of data security in a client-server environment, an IS auditor should be concerned with the users ability to access and modify a database directly. This could affect the integrity of

the data in the database. Data protected by encryption aid in securing the datA. Diskless workstations prevent copying of data into local disks and thus help to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of datA. Disabling floppy drives is a physical access control, which helps to maintain the confidentiality of data by preventing it from being copied onto a disk.


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